Answer to question of blindness


When the disciples saw a man who was born blind they asked Yeshua the question;

"Who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?'

Did Yeshua's answer to this question endorse or sanction their understanding of a predetermined purpose for this man's blindness? No. The truth is that Yeshua's answer reflects the pathetic absurdities engrained in the question... though this fact isn't apparent at first. The NKJV says;

Yeshua answered, "Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but that the works of God should be revealed in him." John 9:3

At first glance it would appear that Yeshua is at least accommodating the disciples on the divine purpose/destiny part because in this translation he makes it sound like there was indeed a purpose for the blind man being born blind. But this first assumes Yeshua said that neither the man, nor his parents (even back to Adam) had ever sinned! All Yeshua said was that neither had sinned.  At the very least we can see this is an abbreviated sentence. The Greek word (which itself was translated from Yeshua's Aramaic words) translated "neither" and "nor" is a combination of two words. The first simply means to negate, (Strong's 3756) and the second demonstrates connection or addition, and is else where  translated "whether" (see Acts 9:2)(Strong's 5037). The Greek word still carries the original picture of Yeshua shaking his head at the absurd suggestion and saying "...not whether...".  A good paraphrase of this verse would be;

"It is not whether this man, nor is it whether his parents have sinned that you should concern yourselves with, instead it should be that the works of God be revealed in him". 

In more modern layman's terms, I can picture Yeshua getting a puzzled look on his face when he was asked the question, then shake his head as if to say;  "What kind of a dumb question is that? You have far better things to concern yourselves with."

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